1. All the following are characteristic of "Right Ventricular Infarction"
Except -
1. Jugular Venous Distension
2. Basal Crepitations of lung
3. Tender palpable liver
4. Volume expansion is the treatment
Ans (2)
aippg.com`s karnataka paper 2001
2. Aortic dissection occurs with everything except
1. Systemic Hypertension
2. Cystic Medical Necrosis
3. Syphilitic Aortitis
4. Aortic Atherosclerosis
Ans (3)
3. Functional residual capacity is the volume of gas in lungs at the end of
-
1. Normal inspiration
2. Normal expiration
3. Forced inspiration
4. Forced expiration
Ans (2)
4. Pro Inflammatory Cytokines include all of the following except -
1. Inter leukin. 1.
2. Inter leukin 2
3. Inter leukin 6
4. TNF - Alpha
Ans (2)
5. Anti Fibrallarin antibodies are met with-
1. Rheumatoid Arthritis
2. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
3. Mixed Connective Tissue Disease
4. Systemic Sclerosis
Ans (4)
6. "Pathergy" Test is specific for -
1. Caplan's Syndrome
2. Sjogren's Syndrome
3. Behcet's Syndrome
4. Felty's Syndrome
Ans (3)
7. All are true regarding Sarcoidosis except -
1. Dry cough
2. Exertional Dyspnoea
3. Wheezing
4. Hemoptysis
Ans (4)
8. "Onychodystrophy" is found in -
1. Rheumatic Arthritis
2. Rheumatoid Arthritis
3. Psoriatic Arthritis
4. Reiter's Arthritis
Ans (3)
9. Lithium clearance is decreased by -
1. Hyper Kalemia
2. Hypo Kalemia
3. Hyper Natremia
4. Hypo Natremia
Ans (4)
10.All the following drugs tend to produce " Myotonia" except-
1. Chloroquine
2. Clofibrate
3. Cyclosporine
4. Propranolol
Ans (1)
11. The Morphology of RBC in disseminated intravascular coagulation is-
1. Microcyte
2. Macrocyte
3. Schistocyte
4. Eliptocyte
Ans (3)
12. Factor XIII deficiency is identified by -
1. Para coagulation test
2. Urea solubility test
3. Euglobulin Lysis test
4. Russell's Viper Venom test
Ans (2)
13. Acute Renal failure can commonly be produced by all except
1. Cobra bite
2. Copper sulfate poisoning
3. Antepartum hemorrhage
4. Puerperal sepsis
Ans (1)
14. All the following can produce febrile jaundice except -
1. Leptospirosis
2. Malaria
3. Enteric fever
4. Viral Hepatitis A
Ans (3)
15. Drug Therapy of Paget's Disease (Osteitis Deformans) include-
1. Alendronate
2. Etidronate
3. Calcitonin
4. Plicamycin
Ans (4)
16. HIV associated nephropathy is characterized by all of the following except
-
1. Membranoprolifertive GN
2. More common in Blacks
3. Severe Neprotic Syndrome
4. Rapid progression to end stage renal disease
Ans (1)
17. All of the following are rue regarding Gastrinomas except -
1. About 2/3 are malignant
2. Most common in the head of pancreas
3. A component of MEN-1
4. Most of gastrin secreted is of G 17 type
Ans (2)
18. "Thumb Printing" In Barium study of small intestine is a feature
of -
1. Acute intestinal pseudo obstruction
2. Intermittent secondary pseudo obstruct
3. Acute Mesenteric ischemia
4. Sub acute ischemic colitis
Ans (3)
19. Choose the false statement regarding hepatitis G virus-
1. Also called GB virus
2. Blood borne RNA virus
3. Mostly infected with C virus
4. Responds to Lamivudine
Ans (4)
20. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML) is characterized by all
of the below except-
1. Caused by JC virus
2. Late manifestation of AIDS
3. Cognitive impairment common
4. Brainstem can be involved
Ans (3)
21. All the following statement are true of ATYPICAL, MYCOBACTERIAL INFECTION
except -
1. Though uncommon there has been a recent increase
2. More common in immuno compromised host
3. In-vitro resistance to ATT is not known
4. Dissemination is a problem in AIDS
Ans (3)
22. All the following are true regarding STREPTOKINASE therapy except -
1. May cause hypo tension
2. Allergic manifestations are not known
3. Cannot be refused again
4. It is cheaper than Urokinase
Ans (2)
23. Albendazole is effective against infection with all of the following except-
1. Ascariasis
2. Neurocysticercosis
3. Echinococcus granulosus
4. Schistosomiasis
Ans (4)
24. All of th following drugs are used in the management of obesity except-
1. Metformin
2. Sibutramine
3. Fenfluramine
4. Cyproheptidine
Ans (4)
25. Regarding INTRINSIC ASTHMA which one of the following statement is TRUE -
1. Commonly begins in childhood
2. IgE mediated
3. Family history is positive
4. Can be identified by skin
Ans (3)
26. Wingerger sign is present in -
1. Rickets
2. Scurvy
3. Secondary Syphilis
4. Tuberculosis
Ans (2)
27. Best method to diagnose Bronchiectasis is -
1. X - ray
2. Bronchography
3. M.R.I.
4. HRCT
Ans (4)
28.In the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma one of the following radionuclide scan
is useful -
1. MIBG Scan
2. MIDA Scan
3. DTPA Scan
4. DMSA Scan
Ans (1)
29.The most common brain tumour to undergo calcification is -
1. Cerebellar astrocytoma
2. Ependymoma
3. Meningioma
4. Oligodendroglioma
Ans (4)
30.'H' shaped vertebra seen in -
1. phenylketonuria
2. Sickle cell anemia
3. Hemangioma
4. Osteoporosis
Ans (2)
31.Metabolic Acidosis with increased anion gap is seen in -
1. Keto acidosis
2. Renal Tubular acidosis
3. Intestinal Fistula
4. Ureterocolic
Ans (4)
32. Hyper catabolic state is marked by increase in metabolic rate and protein
catabolism of more than -
1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%
Ans (1)
33. Maximum Increase in resting metabolic rate is seen in -
1. Selective surgery
2. Multiple fractures
3. Peritonfractures
4. Burns
Ans (4)
34. Most common metabolic complication following total parenteral nutrition is -
1. Hepatic Dysfunction
2. Metabolic Acidosis
3. Hypophosphatemia
4. Essential Fatty Acid Deficiency
Ans (3)
35. Gas Gangrene is caused by -
1. Clostridium tetani
2. Clostridium perfringens
3. Clostridium difficile
4. Peptostreptococci
Ans. b
36. Marjolin's ulcer is characterized all except-
1. Development in a scar
2. Slow Growth
3. Painless nature
4. Spreads to Lymph nodes
Ans (4)
37. Commonest type of Basal cell carcinoma is -
1. Ulcerated
2. Cystic
3. Morphoeic
4. Pigmented
Ans (1)
38. Worst prognosis in Melanoma is seen in the subtype-
1. Superficial spreading
2. Nodular Melanoma
3. Lentigo Maligna Melanoma
4. Amelanotic Melanoma
Ans (4)
39. Ankle Brachial pressure index value suggestive of critical ischemia is -
1. 1
2. 0.9
3. 0.5
4. 0.3
Ans (3)
40. Fat Embolism is diagnosed by -
1. Fluffy Exudates in Retina
2. Fat Droplets in Sputum
3. Fat droplets in Urine
4. All of the above
Ans (4)
41. Factors that predispose to muscle rupture in sportsmen include all of the
following except -
1. Inadequate warm up.
2. Fatigue
3. Muscle spanning two joints
4. Muscle bulk
Ans (4)
42. Chronic paronychia is caused by -
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Improper treatment of acute paronychia
3. Fungal infection
4. Repeated Trauma
Ans (3)
43. Kanavel's sign is seen in -
1. Flexor tendon sheath infection
2. Pulp space infection
3. Mid palmar space infection
4. Web space infection
Ans (1)
44. Causalgia in a limb can be sequel to -
1. Arterial spasm
2. Venous insufficiency
3. Nerve injury
4. All of the above
Ans (3)
a i p p g .com
45. Froment's sign is seen in -
1. Axillary nerve injury
2. Ulnar nerve injury
3. Redial nerve injury
4. Median nerve injury
Ans (3)
46. The following are all true of cleft lip except
1. It can be diagnosed in Utero
2. Most cleft lip babies do not feed well
3. Most of them are associated with cleft palate
4. Surgery is usually performed before 6 months of age
Ans (2)
47. The following are all features of neuroblastoma except -
1. It is the commonest childhood solid tumour
2. Metastases occur early.
3. It can cause diarrhoea
4. Older children have a better prognosis
Ans (4)
48. " Lucid Interval" is associated with -
1. Extradural hematoma
2. Acute subdural hematoma
3. Chronic subdural hematoma
4. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Ans (1)
49. The commonest type of lung cancer is -
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. Small cell carcinoma
4. Alveolar cell carcinoma
Ans (2)
50. The tumour more commonly found in the posterior mediastinum is-
1. Lymphoma
2. Thymoma
3. Germ cell tumour
4. Neurofibroma
Ans (4)
51. The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis culture sensitivity report
is -
1. Erythromycin
2. Rolitetracycline
3. Doxycycline
4. Ampicillin
Ans (4)
52. The quality of voice in a patient with gross adenoid hypertrophy is described
as -
1. Hoarse
2. Rhinolalia Clausa
3. Rhinolalia Aperta
4. 'Hot Potato' Voice
Ans (2)
53. Treatment of choice in Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma is -
1. Radiotherapy
2. Surgical Excision followed by Radiotherapy
3. Laser Ablation
4. Anterior Skull Base Surgery
Ans (1)
54. Reinke's Oedema is -
1. Oedema of the Uvula
2. Oedema of the vocal cord
3. Oedema of the Ventricular band
4. Cyst of the Ventricle of the Larynx
Ans (2)
55. In a classical case of Meniere's disease which one of the following statements
is true -
1. Carhart's Notch is a characteristic feature
2. Schwartz's sign is usually present in the Tympanic Membrane
3. Low frequency sensory neural deafness is often seen in pure tone audiogram
4. Decompression of Fallopian Canal is the treatment of choice.
Ans (3)
56. The pH of Vagina in reproductive age group is about-
1. Less than 4
2. 4-5
3. 6-7
4. more than 7
Ans (2)
57. The following structures develop from the Mullerian Duct. except -
1. Uterus
2. Vagina
3. Fallopian Tubes
4. Vulva
Ans (4)
58. Strawberry Vaginitis is seen in infection with -
1. Gonococcus
2. Trichomonal vaginalis
3. Hemophilus vaginalis
4. Candida ablicans
Ans (4)
59. Genital Tuberculosis most commonly affects -
1. Tubes
2. Ovaries
3. Cervix
4. Vulva
Ans (1)
60. Which of the following is a first generation intrauterine device -
1. Copper T
2. Lippes Loop
3. Multiload
4. Progestasert
Ans (2)
61. The karyotype in Turner's syndrome is -
1. 46 Xx
2. 46 Xy
3. 45 XO
4. 47 XXY
Ans (3)
62. One of the sites where ectopic pregnancy does not occur -
1. Fallopian tube
2. Pouch of Doughlas
3. Abdominal cavity
4. Ovary
Ans (2)
63. The incidence of sarcomatous -
1. Less than 1%
2. 5%
3. 2-3%
4. more than 5%
Ans (1)
64. Feminizing Tumour of Ovary is -
1. Brenner Tumour
2. Branulosa Cell Tumour
3. Arrhenoblastoma
4. Dysgerminoma
Ans (2)
65. The drug of choice for Bacterial Vaginosis is -
1. Doxycycline
2. Metronidazole
3. Penicillin
4. Fluconazole
Ans (2)
66. The confirmatory test for diagnosis of Carcinoma Cervix is -
1. Pap smear
2. ultra sound
3. Schillers Iodine Test
4. Biopsy
Ans (4)
67. Common cause of death in Carcinoma cervix is -
1. Anemia
2. Cachexia
3. Hemorrhage
4. Uremia
Ans (4)
68. The best contraceptive for a newly married couple is -
1. Intrauteine Device
2. Oral pill
3. Calendar Method
4. Condom
Ans (2)
69. The most suitable contraceptive for a lactating mother with one child is
-
1. Laparoscopic sterilization
2. Oral pill
3. Condom
4. Intrauterine Device
Ans (4)
70. Absolute evidence of ovulation is -
1. Cervical Mucorrhoea
2. Basal Body Temperature rise
3. Ovulation Abdominal Plan
4. None of the above
Ans (4)
71. The appropriate choice for treatment of Nulliparous Prolapse is -
1. Sling operation
2. Manchester Repair
3. Ward Mayo's Operation
4. Pessary Treatment
Ans (1)
72. Reteroverted fixed Uterus can be caused due to the following except-
1. Endomatriosis
2. Pelvic inflammatory Disease
3. Malignancy
4. Uterine Prolapse
Ans (4)
73. Which of the following risk factors is associated with Carcinoma of Endometrium
-
1. Multiparity
2. Early Marriage
3. Nulliparity
4. Oral Pill use
Ans (3)
74. Hormone Replacement Therapy is associated with increased risk of -
1. Carcinoma Ovary
2. Carcinoma Breast
3. Carcinoma Cervix
4. Carcinoma Vulva
Ans (2)
75. The common complication of Fibroid Uterus in Pregnancy is -
1. Rupture
2. Torsion
3. Hemorrhage
4. Red Degeneration
Ans (4)
76. Which of the following cell types is commonest in Islets of Langehans of
Pancreas -
1. Beta Cells
2. Alpha Cells
3. Delta Cells
4. F Cells
Ans (1)
77. All of the following HLA types have common association with Diabetes except
-
1. HLA - B8
2. HLA - B15
3. HLA - DR3
4. HLA - DP
Ans (4)
78. Which of the following is the commonest cause of death in Diabetes -
1. Renal failure
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Cerebrovascular accidents
4. Infections
Ans (2)
79. Neuropathy and cataract in diabetic patients are believed to result from
accumulation of -
1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Glycosylated hemoglobin
4. Sorbitol
Ans (4)
80. Which of the following polyposis syndromes in intestine is most common
1. Gardner's Syndrome
2. Turcot's Syndrome
3. Familial Polyposis coli
3. Familial Polyposis coli
4. Peutz - Jeghers Syndrome
Ans (3)
81. Auer rods is a morphological feature of -
1. Myeloblastic Leukemia
2. Lymphoblastic Leukemia
3. Monocytic Leukemia
4. Myelomonocytic Leukemia
Ans (1)
82. The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called
as -
1. Clone
2. Epitaph
3. Idiotype
4. Effector
Ans (2)
83. Which of the following cells is known as large granular lymphocyte (LGL)
-
1. Plasma cells
2. NK cells
3. T cells
4. Autograft
Ans (2)
84. Transplantation of the host's -
1. Isograft
2. Allograft
3. Xenograft
4. Autograft
Ans (4)
85. All of the following diseases are transmitted in autosomal recessive pattern
except -
1. Hurler's Syndrome
2. Hunter's Syndrome
3. Alkaptonuria
4. Gaucher's disease
Ans (2)
86. Which of the following is a flocculation test -
1. Widal test
2. Weil - Felix test
3. VDRL
4. Paul-Bunnel test
Ans (3)
87. Malarial parasites are easily detected if blood films are taken and examined
-
1. When the patient is febrile
2. When the patient is having chills
3. One hour after the height of the paroxysm
4. When the patient is afebrile
Ans (3)
88. The larval form of Taenia is referred to as -
1. Cysticercoid
2. Cysticercus
3. Coenurus
4. Echinococcus
Ans (4)
89. All enveloped helical RNA viruses belong to one large group, which includes
all the following except -
1. Influenza
2. Para influenza
3. Mumps
4. Herpes
Ans (4)
90. The most definitive distinguishing feature of Infectious Monoucleosis from
Infectious Hepatitis is -
1. Fever
2. Jaundice
3. Heterophile antibodies
4. Splenomegaly
Ans (3)
91. Hemophilus ducrei is the causative agent of -
1. hard Chancre
2. Urethritis
3. Soft Sore
4. Granuloma inguinale
Ans (3)
92. Which of the following is not true of Diplococcus Pneumoniae -
1. Bile solubility
2. Optochin resistance
3. Causes meningitis
4. Possess capsule
Ans (2)
93. Photochromogenic strain of Mycobacterium species is -
1. M.Kansasii
2. M.Scrofulacium
3. M.avium intracellulare
4. M. smegmatis
Ans (1)
94 The following are gram negative cocci except -
1. Pneucococci
2. Gonococci
3. Meningococci
4. Veillonella
Ans (1)
95 Rotaviruses are responsible for -
1. Acute non bacterial gastroenteritis
2. Infantile diarrhoea
3. Teratogenic effects
4. Respiratory tract infection
Ans (2)
96 Dribbling of saliva is seen in a case of -
1. Hanging
2. Strangulation
3. Drowning
4. Suffocation
Ans (1)
97 Legally " ABORTION" is termination of pregnancy -
1. Before six weeks
2. Before sixteen weeks
3. Before twenty six weeks
4. Before full term
Ans (4)
98. Dilatation of pupils is seen in poisoning by -
1. Dhatura
2. Opium
3. Arsenic
4. Sulphuric Add
Ans (1)
99. The cause of death in hanging is -
1. Asphyxia
2. Cerebral anoxia
3. Fracture/Dislocation of the Cervical vertebrae
4. All of the above
Ans (4)
100. "Hydrostatic Test"' is performed in a case of -
1. Hanging
2. Drowning
3. Infanticide
4. Organo Phosphoromes compound poisoning
Ans (3)
101. Boerhave's Syndrome is due to -
1. Reflux Esophagitis
2. Spontaneous perforation
3. Corrosive ingestion
4. Aspiration Pneumonia
Ans (2)
102. Which of the following is not associated with increased incidence of Esophageal
Carcinoma -
1. Congenital Tylosis Esophagus
2. Barrett's Esophagus
3. Achalasia Cardia
4. All of the above
Ans (4)
103. Which of the following statements is not true regarding chylous Ascites
-
1. Can be seen in abdominal lymphoma
2. Can occur following abdominal surgery
3. Low fat diet is useful in controlling chylous Ascites
4. Asctic fluid contains no Lymphocytes
Ans (4)
104. All of the following can lead to Retro peritoneal Fibrosis except -
1. Retro peritoneal Hemorrhage
2. Beta-Adrenergic Blocking Agents
3. Urinary Extravasation
4. Immuno suppressive drugs
Ans (4)
105. Corkscrew Esophagus is seen in -
1. Achalasia Cardia
2. Diffuse Esophageal Spasm
3. Corrosive Stricture of Esophagus
4. Carcinoma Esophagus
Ans (2)
106. Regarding Achalasia Cardia, which of the following statements is incorrect
-
1. Is treated by Pneumatic dilatation
2. Symptoms are relieved by Bethanecol
3. More common in men
4. Is associated with Dysphagia for liquids
Ans (2)
107. Regarding Barrett's Esophagus, which of the following statements is incorrect
-
1. Is due to chronic Gastro esophageal Reflux
2. Is lined by Columnar Epithelium
3. Is associated with elevated lower Esophageal Sphincter pressure
4. Is associated with increased incidence of Adenocarcinoma of Esophagus.
Ans (3)
108. Hamman's sign is seen in -
1. Achalasia Cardia
2. Diffuse Esophageal Spasm
3. Esophageal Perforation
4. Carcinoma Esophagus
Ans (3)
109. GHJ Gastroepiploic Artery is a branch of -
1. Hepatic Artery
2. Coeliac Trunk
3. Gastroduodenal Artery
4. Splenic Artery.
Ans (3)
110. Electrical Pacemaker of Stomach is situated in -
1. Funds
2. Body
3. Incisura Angularis
4. Gastro Esophageal junction
Ans (1)
111. Congenital convex pes valgus results from -
1. Congenital vertical talus
2. Spina bifida
3. Poliomyelitis
4. Club foot over corrections
Ans (1)
112. Tardy Ulnar nerve palsy is seen in -
1. Dislocation of elbow
2. Cubitus varus
3. Cubitus Valgus
4. Supracondylar fracture humerus
Ans (3)
113. Traction injury to vertebral epiphysisis known as -
1. Osgood Schlatter's disease
2. Larsen disease
3. Scheurmann disease
4. Osteosarcoma
Ans (3)
114. Commonest benign bone tumour is -
1. Chondrosarcoma
2. Osteochondroma
3. Osteoid Osteoma
4. Osteosarcoma
Ans (2)
115. Commonest site for unicameral bone cyst is -
1. Upper end of humerus
2. Lower end of tibia
3. Lower end of femur
4. Upper end of femur
Ans (1)
116. Colour coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is -
1. Black
2. Black with white shoulders
3. French blue
4. Gray
Ans (3)
117. About 90% of Carbon dioxide is carried in the blood as -
1. Dissolved CO2
2. Bicarbonate
3. Carbamino compound
4. Carboxyhemoglobin
Ans (2)
118. Full vagolytic dose of atropine is _______micrograms/kg -
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40
Ans (4)
119. Thiopentone is preferred as an induction agent because of -
1. Anticonvulsant properties
2. Fast elimination by liver
3. Smoothness of induction
4. Cardiovascular stability
Ans (3)
120. Lignocaine is used as _________ % solution for spinal anesthesia -
1. 0.5
2. 1
3. 2
3. 5
Ans (4)
121. "Vossius's ring is -
1. Impression of miotic pupil on lens
2. Impression of dilated pupil on lens
3. Synonymous with ring of Sommerring
4. Ring around optic nerve
Ans (1)
122. The commonest ocular manifestation of AIDS is -
1. Micro aneurysms
2. Hemorrhages
3. Hard exudates
4. Cotton wool spots
Ans (4)
123. The action of superior oblique muscle is -
1. Abduction, Elevation, Extorsion
2. Abduction, Elevation, Extorsion
3. Abduction, Depression, Intorsion
4. Abduction, Depression, Intorsion
Ans (3)
124. Commonest visual field defect seen in chiasmal defect is -
1. Bitemporal hemianopia
2. Binasal hemianopia
3. Homonymous hemianopis
4. Arcuate field defect
Ans (1)
125. Argon laser trabeculoplasty is useful for -
1. Primary open angle glaucoma
2. Angle Closure glaucoma
3. Neovascular glaucoma
4. Congenital glaucoma
Ans (1)
126. All of the following are Health promotion Strategies except -
1. Chlorination of water
2. Paring of nails
3. Chemo prophylaxis
4. Lifestyle changes
Ans (3)
127. The following are examples of specific protection except-
1. Use of Calipers for Post Polio Residual Paralysis
2. Use of Helmets
3. Vitamin A administration to children
4. Use of goggles by welders
Ans (1)
128. The severity of illness of a disease is represented by -
1. Attack rate
2. Proportional mortality rate
3. Case fatality rate
4. Cause specific mortality rate
Ans (3)
129. A good measure of the virulence of a disease is -
1. Attack rate
2. Secondary attack rate
3. Incidence rate
4. Prevalence rate
Ans (2)
130. A measure of unit change of one variable to another independent variable
is -
1. Regression coefficient
2. Correlation coefficient
3. Standard error of mean
4. Standard deviation
Ans (1)
131. The main tool for detection of "cases" of tuberculosis is -
1. Sputum examination
2. Mantoux test
3. Chest X-ray
4. All of the above
Ans (1)
132. The first person becoming sick in an epidemic is called -
1. Primary case
2. Source of infection
3. Reservoir of infection
4. Index case
Ans (1)
133. The following diseases are amenable to eradication except -
1. Measles
2. Polio
3. Diphtheria
4. Tetanus
Ans (4)
134. The following is true for guinea worm disease -
1. Direct transmission is possible
2. It is spread by vector
3. The disease has been eradicated
4. Man is the intermediate host
Ans (2)
135. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in non-infectious
disease is called -
1. Incubation period
2. Serial interval
3. Latent period
4. Lag time
Ans (3)
136. The following are true of "Communicable period", except-
1. It is constant for a given disease
2. It can be reduced for some disease by early detection
3. It may include the incubation period
4. An important measure of this period is secondary attack rate
Ans (1)
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137. The following are examples of "Reservoir of Infection" EXCEPT-
1. Soil
2. Mosquito
3. Dog
4. Water
Ans (4)
138. Investment in Health care and family Welfare during different plan periods
is approximately -
1. 2%
2. 5%
3. 7%
4. 10%
Ans (1)
139. Which of the following categories account for the largest proportion of
health care costs -
1. Salaries
2. Drugs
3. Equipments
4. Maintenance
Ans (1)
140. Following are properties of a slow sand filter except -
1. Occupies large area
2. Pretreatment of raw water by coagulation is not required
3. Purification is by biological process
4. Cleaning is by backwashing
Ans (4)
141. In demographic parlance family size refers to the total number of -
1. Members in a family
2. Children belonging to a couple
3. Children borne by a woman at a point in time
4. Children borne by a woman during childbearing age
Ans (3)
142. The current Global strategy for Malaria Control is called -
1. Modified plan of Operation
2. Malaria Eradication Programme
3. Malaria Control programme
4. Roll back malaria
Ans (4)
143. The following are examples of "Dead end" disease except -
1. Rabies
2. Japanese encephalitis
3. Tetanus
4. Taeniasis
Ans (4)
144. Hospital outpatient attendance is Not a measure of incidence of disease
because -
1. There is no reference population
2. All cases may not report to the hospital
3. Both old and new cases will attend
4. Attendance will depend on the services offered
Ans (1)
145. Two brothers with their wives, children and parents are staying under the
same roof but have separate kitchen. The term which best describes this situation
is -
1. Joint family
2. Three generation family
3. House hold
4. Extended family
Ans (3)
146. Spraying of mosquito larvicidal oil on stagnant water is useful for the
control of -
1. Anopheles stephensi
2. Culex quinquefasciatus
3. Mansonai annulifers
4. All of the above
Ans (2)
147. Relative risk will be largest when the association between two factors
is -
1. Spurious
2. Indirect
3. One to One
4. Multifactorial
Ans (3)
148. The "concurrent list" of the constitution of India lists the
following functions except - 1. Prevention of extension of communicable disease
2. Administration of hospital and health services
3. Collection and compilation of vital statistics
4. Labour welfare
Ans (2)
149. In john Snow's study of the cholera epidemic in London the following were
done except -
1. Causation of cholera was established
2. Difference in death rates between water source were compared
3. Clustering of cases was established
4. Degree of contamination of water was studied
Ans (1)
150. The major environmental source of lead absorbed in the human blood stream
is -
1. Air
2. Water
3. Lead based paint
4. Food
Ans (1)
151. In the postnatal period the greatest growth in the gray matter of the C.N.S.
is of -
1. Neuron cell number
2. Length of Axon
3. Dendtritic tree
4. Size of perikaryon
Ans (3)
152. Which of the following back muscles contributes to exert lonal expiration
-
1. Quadratus Lumborum muscle
2. Erector Spinae muscle
3. Iliacus muscle
4. Psoas major and minor muscles
Ans (1)
153. Stability to the ankle joint is provided by the following ligaments, except
-
1. Deltoid ligament
2. Posterior tibiofibular ligament, except
3. Lateral ligament
4. Capillary endothelium
Ans (4)
154. In the Neurohypophysis, secretory granules accumulate in -
1. Pituicytes
2. Nerve endings
3. Intercellular spaces
4. Capillary endothelium
Ans (2)
155. The epiphysis of the upper end of tibia includes the attachment of -
1. Fibulo collateral Ligament
2. Tibial collateral ligament
3. Ligamentum patellae
4. Popliteus muscle
Ans (3)
156. Righting reflexes in humans are integrated at the level of -
1. Basal gangila
2. Midbrain
3. Pons
4. Medulla
Ans (2)
157. The tidal volume in a normal man at rest is about -
1. 0.5 L
2. 1.2 L
3. 2.5 L
4. 4.9 L
Ans (1)
158. Bile salts are responsible for -
1. Protein digestion
2. Fat digestion
3. Bile secretion
4. Calcium reabsorption
Ans (2)
159. Reabsorption of glucose in kidney takes place in -
1. Proximal tubule
2. Distal tubule
3. Loop of Henle
4. Collecting duct
Ans (1)
160. Starling's law of heart -
1. Explains the increase in cardiac output by increase in after load
2. Explains the increase in cardiac output by increase in preload
3. Does not operate in the failing heart
4. Does not operate during exercise
Ans (2)
161. Urinary excretion of urobilinogen by a patient suffering from
obstructive jaundice will be -
1. Below normal
2. Normal
3. Excessive
4. Nil
Ans (4)
162. In the kidney, parathormone promotes all these activities except -
1. 1-Alpha - hydroxylase activity
2. 25-hydroxylase activity
3. Calcium reabsorption
4. Phosphate excretion
Ans (2)
163. Angiotensinogen is produced by -
1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Atrium
4. Hypothalamus
Ans (1)
164. Structurally, Heparin is a -
1. Homo polysaccharide
2. Hetero polysaccharide
3. Glycoprotein
4. Mucoprotein
Ans (2)
165. Taurine is formed by using the amino acid -
1. Tyrosine
2. Tryptophan
3. Cysteine
4. Histidine
Ans (3)
166. Time for peak plasma concentration (Tmax ) indicates -
1. The rate of elimination
2. The rate of absorption
3. The onset of effect
4. The intensity of effect
Ans (2)
167. Volume of distribution (V) for Chloroquine is -
1. 5-8 L
2. 9-15 L
3. 100-650 L
4. Above 1300 L
Ans (4)
168. One of the potential microsomal enzymes inhibitor drug is -
1. Phenobarbitone
2. Griseofulvin
3. Sodium valproate
4. Phenytoin
Ans (3)
169. In oral poisoning with carbamate insecticides ___________ may be hazardous.
1. Pralidoxmie
2. Atropine
3. Magnesium Sulfate purgative
4. Gastric lavage with activated charcoal
Ans (1)
170. Dobutamine increases -
1. Heart rate
2. Cardiac output
3. Blood pressure
4. Plasma volume
Ans (2)
171. Advantage of Salmeterol over -
1. Shorter duration of action
2. More potency
3. Longer duration of action
4. Lesser cardiac effects
Ans (3)
172. Ondanestron is a potent -
1. Antiemetic
2. Anxiolytic
3. Analgesic
4. Antidepressant
Ans (1)
173. Furosemide is useful in -
1. Hypertension
2. Refractory oedema
3. Hypocalcemia
4. Hypokalemia
Ans (2)
174. Low molecular weight heparin inhibits clotting factor -
1. IIa
2. IXa
3. Xa
4. XIa
Ans (3)
175. Analgesic 100 times more potent than morphine as -
1. Pethidine
2. Fentanyl
3. Methadone
4. Naloxone
Ans (2)
176. All of the following are curable malignancies except -
1. Wilm's tumour
2. Retinoblastoma
3. Hydatidiform mole
4. Hairy cell leukemia
Ans (4)
177. Relative contraindications to thrombolytic therapy include a/e -
1. Hyptotension
2. Recent surgery
3. Active peptic ulcer
4. Pregnancy
Ans (1)
178. Which one of the following is the most characteristic Arrhythmia with
digitoxicity -
1. Auricular fibrillation
2. Extra systoles
3. PAT with block
4. Auricular flutter
Ans (3)
179. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma is characterized by all of the
following except -
1. High blood sugar levels
2. Occurs in type 2 DM
3. Insulin resistance
4. Focal neurological deficit
Ans (3)
180. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all of the following except -
1. Pregnancy
2. Diabetes
3. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
4. Renal failure
Ans (2)
181. The prime principle of growth and development include all of the following
except -
1. Growth is a continous process
2. It follows the same pattern in all human beings
3. Growth and development go hand in hand
4. Development occurs in a caudocephalal fashion.
Ans (4)
182. Breast milk is deficient in the following vitamins -
1. A and D
2. B and C
3. A and K
4. D and K
Ans (4)
183. Breast milk is superior to cow's because -
1. It contains 70% whey protein
2. Saturated fat content is high
3. Sodium is high
4. Casein content is 60%
Ans (1)
184. Albumnio Cytological dissociation in CSF is seen in all of the following
conditions except -
1. Lead Encephalopathy
2. Acute Poliomylitis
3. Infective Polyneurits
4. Tumour of the spinal cord
Ans (2)
185. Greenish blue urine colour occurs in -
1. Rmp. therapy
2. Naphthalene Poisoning
3. Phenol poisoning
4. Methemoglobinemia
Ans (3)
186. The filtration of proteins by the kidneys is restricted by -
1. Foot processes of the glomerular membrane
2. Micro pores in the membrane
3. Negatively charged anions
4. Plasma oncotic pressure
Ans (3)
187. HUS is characterized by a/e -
1. Usually follows a viral respiratory infection
2. Vero toxins initiated endothelial injury
3. Presents with ARF
4. P.S shows evidence of DIC
Ans (4)
188. An infant with hypernatremic dehydration presents with All of the following
features except -
1. Depressed anterior fontanelle
2. Dry tongue
3. Altered consciousness
4. Thready feeble peripheral pulse
Ans (1)
189. Pertussis infection during early infancy in characterized by a/e -
1. Paroxysms of cough followed by whoop
2. Apnea
3. Convulsions
4. Cyanosis
Ans (1)
190. Commonest Cardiac Rhythm disturbance seen in children is -
1. Supra Ventricular Tachycardia
2. Sinus Tachycardia
3. Ventricular Tachycardia
4. Junctional Rhythm
Ans (1)
191. That part of mind which is working on reality principle is -
1. id
2. Ego
3. Superego
4. Ego-Ideal
Ans (2)
192. One of the important defense mechanisms is
1. Alienation
2. Confabulation
3. Repression
4. Suppression
Ans (3)
Aippg.com
193. Associated with mental retardation and fits is
1. Sturge-Weber's Syndrome
2. Epiloia (Tuberous sclerosis)
3. Gargoylism
4. Cretinism
Ans (2)
194. Monolism is caused by
1. infection
2. Increased maternal age
3. X-rays
4. Chromosomal anomaly
Ans (4)
195. The commonest disorder of perception is:
1. Delusion
2. hallucination
3. Passivity
4.Compulsion
Ans (2)
196. Tzanck test is used in the diagnosis of :
1. Epidermolysis Bullosa
2.Bullous Impetigo
3. Pemphigus Vulgaris
4. Tinea Corporis
Ans (3)
197. Pseudo-Bubo is seen in
1. Granuloma Venereum
2. Lumpho Granuloma Venereum
3. Chancroid
4. Syphilis
Ans (1)
198. Apple-Jelly Nodules are seen in:
1. Tuberculosis Verrucosa Cutis
2. Scrofuloderma
3. Tuberculous Gumma
4. Lupus Vulgaris
199. Maculae caerulae are caused by
1. Pubic Lice (Pediculosis pubis)
2. head lice
3. Body lice
4. Mites
Ans (1)
karnataka pg paper solved questions 2001
200. Frei Skin Test is used in the diagnosis of
1. Lympho-Granuloma Venereum
2. Sarcoidosis
3. Leishmaniasis
4. HSV infection
Ans (1)
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